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Posted

If this is in the wrong place, may the powers that be feel free to move it to the correct location.

 

Viral loads are determined by the amount of HIV virus in the blood.  Is the amount of virus in semen virtually the same, lower or higher?  If different, by what percentages usually?  Are any tests ever performed to determine the amount of virus in semen?

 

The second major question may be answered by the response to the first.

 

Which would be more risky for a negative top?  Topping a negative bottom who just received an extremely high viral load of semen, or a positive bottom with an extremely high viral load who has had no semen deposited in him, but has very visible anal bleeding?

 

Sorry if these are considered stupid questions.  I've just never seen them asked or answered anywhere.

 

Thanks in advance for any responses.

Posted

Funny, I was actually thinking about your first question last night.  Haven't researched it yet.

  • Moderators
Posted

There is a lag between when you become UD which is measured from you blood and when your other bodily fluids are free of the virus. That’s why a guy needs to be UD for a few months (I think 6 is the accepted limit) before they can be sure they are also unable to transmit the virus. 

I think fucking a bottom with a Poz load in him is potentially a risk for infection. I am not sure how they could research the scenario fully. I don’t think you could get that setup past most labs. 

Fucking a Poz bottom who is bleeding is definitely a risk. I know two tops who were infected this way although this was years ago. 

  • Upvote 1
Posted

Where do I sign up? I would like to be part of the research to be the bottom that receive HVL cum to see if I could infect neg tops 

Posted

It's really impossible to rank the level of risk for these theoretical scenarios. The best course of action for the negative top in question is to get on Prep. Then there's almost no chance (a fraction of a percent) of infection in any of these cases.

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