I am HIV negative, and I'm inconsistent in using condoms during hookups. Therefore, I want PrEP.
I had an appointment with my primary care physician yesterday in which I asked about going on PrEP. He was familiar with PrEP and began asking me questions about my sexual habits. I lied and told him that I was in a relationship with an HIV+ guy. He asked me what my fake-bf's viral load is. I told him that I don't know. Essentially, he said that by this point in my relationship (having sex with a poz guy), I should know what my bf's viral load is if I'm taking my health seriously. He said that if my bf's viral load is elevated, it's an indicator that he either has a particularly virulent strain of HIV or that he is irresponsible in taking his HIV meds, and I really should know if either of these is the case. He told me that PrEP consultation/prescription is handled by my HMO's infections disease specialists, and that I should receive a call from one by the end of the week.
My question is, when I talk to the infectious disease specialist, what should I say my bf's viral load is? I'm concerned that if I say "undetectable", they may be hesitant to prescribe PrEP (since PrEP is costly and HMOs have a reputation for being stingy). On the other hand, I don't want them to think that my bf has a virulent strain of HIV or is irresponsible with his meds. I was thinking... maybe I could give a fairly low viral load, and just say that he recently seroconverted and has not yet reached undetectable? What's a reasonable viral load for this situation? Also, how long does it take the typical poz guy to reach undetectable after starting HIV meds?
Thanks for reading this far. I feel like maybe I shouldn't have lied in the first place, but now I'm kind of stuck with maintaining this story.